how can we prove that
I think the proof starts by lettingbut I didn't reach anything
Thanks
I don't know where thecomes from, but there is a fairly simple way to prove a stronger inequality.
Let. Integrate by parts to get
. Therefore
.
Using that recurrence relation, you can show by induction that. In fact, the base case n=0 is obvious. The inductive step amounts to the inequality
, which you can check by squaring both sides.
Sinceis clearly less than
, that is a better inequality than what was asked for.