hi!

Does the property

$\displaystyle

f^{-1}(A\cup B)=f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)

$

hold for an infinite union of sets??

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- May 9th 2010, 02:41 PMmabrukainverse mapping simple question
hi!

Does the property

$\displaystyle

f^{-1}(A\cup B)=f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)

$

hold for an infinite union of sets?? - May 9th 2010, 03:08 PMJose27
- May 9th 2010, 03:12 PMmabruka
sh*t! you are right, it is so simple to check it!

gracias!