Originally Posted by

**nngktr** I'm working on a proof to show there exists an embedding of the real projective plane P R^2 in R^4.

The initial setup is as follows:

Let S^2 denote the unit sphere in R^3 given by S^2 = {(x, y, z) ∈ R3 : x^2 + y^ 2 + z ^2 = 1}, and let

f : S^2 → R^4 be deﬁned by f (x, y, z) = (x^2 − y ^2 , xy, yz, zx).

I'm trying to show that f determines a continuous map F: P R^2 → R^4 where P R^2 is the real projective plane,

then show that F is a homeomorphism onto a topological subspace of R^4 .

I think it's easy to see that f(x1,y1,z1)=f(x2,y2,z2) implies (x1,y1,z1)=+/-(x2,y2,z2). But I don't know how to figure out the whole proof completely. Could anyone please give me a hint? Any input is appreciated!