Are you 2 in the same class? http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...-question.html
Suppose that f,g,h are real valued functions on (a,b) and (a,b). Assume that f and h are differentiable at , f( )=h( ) and f(x)<=g(x)<=h(x) for all x (a,b). show that g is differentiable at and f'( )=g'( )=h'( ). Use this result to explain why the fraction F(x) defined by F(x)= sin(1/x), x not equal to 0, and F(0)=0 has derivative equal to 0 at x=0.
I honestly have no clue I hope some one can help me thanks!
Are you 2 in the same class? http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...-question.html
I've noticed that this question was already posted (sadly after I posted) however I haven't a clue who that person is lol. I find that there are usually similar questions being posted which is a plus b/c its good practice. But I mean so many school use the same or similar books so I doubt it. The one I posted had extra parts to it also. That'd be cool tho and random lol