Hello all,I need a bit of help to proove that
$\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{x}{(1+{x})^n} $ uniformally converges , x in [1,2]
,$\displaystyle n \in \mathbb{N}=1,2,3....$
lol man you are right, when I first saw your answer I did mistakenly thought of it as a correct one cause I thought that the numerator was "1" , but instead it was "x" . (I suppose the same thing did happen to you too?)
So I think that its not correct, because for n=1 (and lets say x=2)
As far as mentioning $\displaystyle \frac{1}{\pi^{\pi^n}}$ do we get this from a Taylor Series?