I am working through Serge Lang's book "Undergraduate Analysis" (Second Edition)
On pagfe 42 he defines the limit of a function as follows:
"We shall say that the limit of f(x) as x approaches a exists if there exists a number L having the following property. Given, there exists a number
> 0 such that for all x
S satisfying
|x - a| <
we have
|f(x) - L| <{see below for some
obvious and immediate consequences}
This definition seems at odds with the definition in Apostal and other texts snice they do not allow x to actually assume the value a and write something equivalent to
0 < |x - a| <
Am I right in assuming Lang's definition differs?
If so - are there significant consequences for theorems - I mean does one constantly have to be careful over this matter?
{Note further that on page 43 Lang writes:
"Next, suppose a is an element of S. We consider any function f on S.
Then the limitexists.
We contend that it must be equal to f(a)"
Surely (as a consequence of Lang's defn) this is not the usual conclusion!
Yet further ... on page 44 Lang writes:
"Define g on S by g(x) = x if x ne 0 and g(0) = 1. Thendoes not exist. Again with the defn of Apostal and others
would be equal to 0 even though the value of the function at 0 is 1."
Is my reasoning correct?
Is it right to be alarmed at the possible consequences of this different definition for being able to follow mainstream analysis? Should I switch to another text? }
Bernhard


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