If in measure then prove that |f_n|->|f| in measure.
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Originally Posted by Chandru1 If in measure then prove that |f_n|->|f| in measure. What does in measure mean? That the integrals converge?
Originally Posted by southprkfan1 What does in measure mean? That the integrals converge? Nope it means . Originally Posted by Chandru1 If in measure then prove that |f_n|->|f| in measure. Have you heard of the reverse triangle inequality? . Use it to prove that .
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