why we do tailor around 1 and not 0 ?
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Originally Posted by transgalactic why we do tailor around 1 and not 0 ? Hint: Spoiler: Assuming that is analytic at then where (and this is meant as emphasis) P.S. I don't see any fabric.
Originally Posted by transgalactic why we do tailor around 1 and not 0 ? Because log z is singular (not defined) at zero.
the question states how to get over loss of significance problem in here f=ln x -ln y? f=ln x -ln y=ln z the tailor series for ln z is: but how this expression equals z-1 ?
Originally Posted by transgalactic the question states how to get over loss of significance problem in here f=ln x -ln y? f=ln x -ln y=ln z the tailor series for ln z is: but how this expression equals z-1 ? It doesn't. But,
why?? how you got to this conclution that it close to z-1 ?
Originally Posted by transgalactic why?? how you got to this conclution that it close to z-1 ? Your expression is equal to . So, . Another easier way is to write out the terms of your series and notice that by taking for a suitable
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