Hey everyone, I think I am making the following WAY too difficult. Does anyone have insight into A) whether the following is even correct or B) an easier way to do it (as I am sure there is one).
Problem: Letbe a locally Euclidean space of dimension
. Call an open subset
of
a Euclidean ball if
for some open
. Prove that
has an open base of Euclidean balls.
Proof: Letbe arbitrary and let
be the guaranteed Euclidean ball containing
with
the necessary homeomorphism. Let
(each of these balls are open in
for obvious reasons) and
. Clearly
contains open subset of
, but since
is in fact open we see that each element of
is open in
. So, set
. By previous comment this is a class of open subsets of
. Also,
is a homeomorphism and so
is in fact a collection of Euclidean balls. It remains to show that it's a base.
So, letbe arbitrary and
any neighborhood of
. Thus, keeping the notation of the previous paragraph we have that
is an open subspace of
and so
is an open subset of
. So, there exists some
. It follows that
and
. The conclusion follows.
.
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