Suppose there are two sequences {xk} and {yk} of reals such that {xk} converges to x, and yk converges to y.
I know that if xk >= yk for all k>=m, then x>=y.
However, if xk>yk for all k>=m, would x>y hold true as well?
I'm rather bad with understanding subtle differences when it comes to strict inequalities, so please provide a reason as well.