Originally Posted by

**derek walcott** Okay so this makes sense because if the integral of f exists then kf should exist if k is an element in the reals.

okay so there is a theorem in my book that says:

Let a,b, and k be real numbers. a< b. Let f and g be a real-valued functions that are Riemann integrable on [a,b]. Then integral b to a of kf equals k* integral b to a of f.

So i start out by saying e>0 and that there is a delta>0 such that ||P||<delta.

||P|| = max(xi - x(i-1))<delta

I just can't figure out how to incorporate a real number in when I have been solving proofs like Prove (f+g) = (f)+(g) when f and g are both functions and greater than or equal to zero. When i can solve by using inf and sup to prove ...... can i do that here as well?

Any help would be appreciated .......

I will continue looking at the problem