Prove that the function f defined by f(x)=x if x is rational and f(x)=-x if x is irrational is continuous at 0 only.

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- Feb 21st 2010, 03:51 PMredsoxnationContinuous Function proof
Prove that the function f defined by f(x)=x if x is rational and f(x)=-x if x is irrational is continuous at 0 only.

- Feb 21st 2010, 04:01 PMPlato
- Feb 21st 2010, 05:00 PMpatrick
Hint: If f is indeed continuous, then f^{-1}( (0,1) ) is a non-empty open subset of R. It also contains 1/2, for instance. Since 1/2 lies in an open subset of R, look at an irrational number in a neighborhood of 1/2 and show that it doesn't map into (0,1) as originally assumed.

- Feb 21st 2010, 06:22 PMDrexel28