Theorom from Serge Lang's Complex Analysis - pages 89-90
I am a math hobbyist/amateur studying complex analysis from Serge Lang's book Complex Analysis.
I need some help regarding Theorem 1.1 on Page 89
The theorem and is proof as given by Lang are as follows:
"Theorem 1.1 Let U be a connected open set, and let f be a holomorphic function on U. If f ' = 0 then f is constant.
Proof: Let
be two points in U and suppose first that
is a curve joining
to
so that
(a) =
and
(b) = 
The function
t --> f(
(t))
is differentiable, and by the chain rule, its derivative is
f ' (
(t))
'(t) = 0 .... (1)
Hence this function is constant, and therefore
f(
) = f(
(a)) = f(
(b)) = f(
)
Next suppose that
= {
} is a path joining
to
, and let
be the end point of
, putting

By what we have just proved
f(
) = f(
) = f(
) = f(
) = ..... = f(
)
thereby proving the theorem
QUESTIONS
(1) Lang does not describe the nature of the elements of U - but I am assuming that he is taking them as complex numbers? Is that right?
(2) At first sight - to someone familiar with elementary real analysis, the conclusion of the theorem that f ' = 0 implies f is constant does not seem surprising? Any comments?
(3) The statements in the proof:
"
The function
t --> f(
(t))
is differentiable, and by the chain rule, its derivative is
f ' (
(t))
'(t) = 0 .... (1)
Hence this function is constant,"
seem to assume the proof since after assuming f ' = 0 Lang just states, "hence this function is constant".
I am lost at what is being proved - can someone please help?
Theorem in Complex Analysis - What is Proved?
Thanks.
Yes, it does seem a very basic theorem, but my Question 3 about what is actually "proved" is my real worry. We are supposed to show that f ' = 0 implies f is constant. Where in the proof is this actually demonstrated - it seems to be just stated as true in Lang's proof?
Examining the statements in the proof, we find the following:
"
The function
t --> f(http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...65c1de79-1.gif(t))
is differentiable, and by the chain rule, its derivative is
f ' (http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...65c1de79-1.gif(t))http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...65c1de79-1.gif'(t) = 0 .... (1)
Hence this function is constant,"
seem to assume the proof since after assuming f ' = 0 Lang just states, "hence this function is constant".
More on the Theorem on page 89-90 of Serge Lang "Complex Analysis"
I think it is true that he is "proving" what you say - namely
"Either that or he's proving this: U is a complex domain (as described), and f is a function on U. So, he proves that if f'(z) = 0, then f is constant on all of U."
My worry is that his proof seems to consist only of an assertion in the sentence -
"The function t --> f(http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...65c1de79-1.gif(t)) is differentiable, and by the chain rule, its derivative is f ' (http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...65c1de79-1.gif(t))http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...65c1de79-1.gif'(t) = 0 .... (1)
Hence this function is constant," <--- ISN't THIS JUST AN ASSERTION?