# Math Help - Proof that the intersection of infinitely many countable sets is countable.

1. ## Proof that the intersection of infinitely many countable sets is countable.

Did I prove this sufficiently?

2. Originally Posted by davismj

Did I prove this sufficiently?
You mean union.

a) Proving by induction implies that the union of a fixed arbitrarily large number of countable sets is countable. It says nothing about letting $n$ range freely over the naturals.

b) The second part confuses me. The best way to do this is to first prove that if $f:\mathbb{N}\mapsto E$ is surjective, then $E$ is countable and then note that $g:\mathbb{N}^2\mapsto\bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty}A_n$ where $g(m,n)=f_m(n)$ (where $f_m$ is the bijection from $\mathbb{N}$ to $A_m$) is a surjection.