This problem says if n>=3, derive the inequality -x^2 <= x^n <= x^2 for -1 < x < 1. Not really sure how to even start this...
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
multiplying both sides by x^2
I think that you can prove the general result for using induction
Originally Posted by felper multiplying both sides by x^2
I think that you can prove the general result for using induction Ok I'm kind of stuck, it's been a while since I've used induction. I'm at the point where . I'm thinking about dividing by through by x...
Last edited by Plato; Feb 4th 2010 at 08:05 AM.
We proved that the inequality is true for n=3. Now, suppose that is true for n (hypothesis)
Now multiply by both sides
Using the hypothesis
Originally Posted by felper How do you know
Hay Cat here is what is going on. .
Now recall this .
We can say the . For if it were there is nothing to prove.
Ah yes, thanks for the help.
View Tag Cloud