For $\displaystyle n \in \mathbb{N}$, let $\displaystyle f_{n}:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be defined as $\displaystyle f_{n}(x)= \frac{x}{\log{(1+n+x^{2})}}$. Then does $\displaystyle (f_n)$ converge uniformly.
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No，its pointwise limit is 0,but it does not converges uniformly.
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