# Math Help - furie question..

1. ## furie question..

http://i33.tinypic.com/35bsb5t.jpg

i opened the integral on 0 till pi/2 interval
f(x)sin(nx)cos(x/2)dx

which is a coefficient of a foorie series

in order to find a coefficient we do <f,e_i>
where e_i is the orthonormal vector

i cant see how its a coefficient
??

its has 3 function in it so it doesnt resemble a coefficient formulla

???

2. Originally Posted by transgalactic
http://i33.tinypic.com/35bsb5t.jpg

i opened the integral on 0 till pi/2 interval
f(x)sin(nx)cos(x/2)dx

which is a coefficient of a foorie series

in order to find a coefficient we do <f,e_i>
where e_i is the orthonormal vector

i cant see how its a coefficient
??

its has 3 function in it so it doesnt resemble a coefficient formulla

???
You're picture does not open.

P.S. $\text{furie}\ne\text{foorie}\ne\mathcal{FOURIER}$

4. It is "prove that if f is partially continous CP on $[0, \pi]$ then $\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_0^\pi f(x) [sin(n+\frac{1}{2})x]dx= 0$". But I have no idea what "partial continuous CP" means.

5. it means that there are first order disscontinuations on the graph of the function

i was told that because it is defined from 0 to pi we can write it as odd or ever function

when we open the sine we break it into two intergals
and each one is a foorier coeffient which goes to zero

but my prof said that its not a proof