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Math Help - furie question..

  1. #1
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    furie question..

    http://i33.tinypic.com/35bsb5t.jpg

    i opened the integral on 0 till pi/2 interval
    f(x)sin(nx)cos(x/2)dx

    which is a coefficient of a foorie series


    in order to find a coefficient we do <f,e_i>
    where e_i is the orthonormal vector

    i cant see how its a coefficient
    ??

    its has 3 function in it so it doesnt resemble a coefficient formulla

    ???
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  2. #2
    MHF Contributor Drexel28's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by transgalactic View Post
    http://i33.tinypic.com/35bsb5t.jpg

    i opened the integral on 0 till pi/2 interval
    f(x)sin(nx)cos(x/2)dx

    which is a coefficient of a foorie series


    in order to find a coefficient we do <f,e_i>
    where e_i is the orthonormal vector

    i cant see how its a coefficient
    ??

    its has 3 function in it so it doesnt resemble a coefficient formulla

    ???
    You're picture does not open.

    P.S. \text{furie}\ne\text{foorie}\ne\mathcal{FOURIER}
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  3. #3
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    press on the link
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  4. #4
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    It is "prove that if f is partially continous CP on [0, \pi] then \lim_{n\to \infty} \int_0^\pi f(x) [sin(n+\frac{1}{2})x]dx= 0". But I have no idea what "partial continuous CP" means.
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  5. #5
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    it means that there are first order disscontinuations on the graph of the function

    i was told that because it is defined from 0 to pi we can write it as odd or ever function


    when we open the sine we break it into two intergals
    and each one is a foorier coeffient which goes to zero

    but my prof said that its not a proof
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