f_n converges to f which is 1

at the beggining f_n is 0 but when n goes to infinity its 1

so why sup(f_n(x)-f(x))=1 ?

f is allways 1

but f_n is 0 and going to one

so the supremumum of their difference is 0 not 1

?

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- November 15th 2009, 03:47 AMtransgalacticsupremum difference question..

f_n converges to f which is 1

at the beggining f_n is 0 but when n goes to infinity its 1

so why sup(f_n(x)-f(x))=1 ?

f is allways 1

but f_n is 0 and going to one

so the supremumum of their difference is 0 not 1

? - November 15th 2009, 03:52 AMSampras
- November 15th 2009, 05:05 AMtransgalactic
exacty

in one case its 1-1

in the other its 0-1

the supremum is 0