# absolute value question..

• November 10th 2009, 05:13 AM
transgalactic
absolute value question..
http://i36.tinypic.com/2ebh4hw.gif

why they remove the absolute value?

and norm by definition equals the root of inner product integral

why they put second power on both of them?
• November 11th 2009, 08:13 PM
putnam120
What exactly is your question? I looked at the .gif and everything seemed to be correct (except for the last part with the $\neq$).
• November 11th 2009, 08:31 PM
Jose27
They must have forgotten to write it, but it should be there.

Quote:

and norm by definition equals the root of inner product integral
this is only true when you actually have an inner product defined, and it's not hard to see that in $L^1( \Omega )$ or $C^0(\Omega )$ the norm you are given does not come from an inner product (actually, precisely because the norm doesn't satisfy the parallelogram law).