http://i36.tinypic.com/2ebh4hw.gif

why they remove the absolute value?

and norm by definition equals the root of inner product integral

why they put second power on both of them?

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- November 10th 2009, 05:13 AMtransgalacticabsolute value question..
http://i36.tinypic.com/2ebh4hw.gif

why they remove the absolute value?

and norm by definition equals the root of inner product integral

why they put second power on both of them? - November 11th 2009, 08:13 PMputnam120
What exactly is your question? I looked at the .gif and everything seemed to be correct (except for the last part with the ).

- November 11th 2009, 08:31 PMJose27
They must have forgotten to write it, but it should be there.

Quote:

and norm by definition equals the root of inner product integral

*not*come from an inner product (actually, precisely because the norm doesn't satisfy the parallelogram law).