i from 1 to infinty
the whole sum is called u
and i think we need to show that i converges
but thats only a shot in the dark
i dont have a clue about it
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Yes that's what you had to do.
Now, recall that to get
For what s (depending on p) does converge ?
It's just a Riemann sum...
And taking something to the power 1/p doesn't change anything in the convergence or divergence.
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