Yes that's what you had to do.
Now, recall that to get
For what s (depending on p) does converge ?
It's just a Riemann sum...
And taking something to the power 1/p doesn't change anything in the convergence or divergence.
http://i37.tinypic.com/2nhosqa.jpg
i tried:
i from 1 to infinty
the whole sum is called u
and i think we need to show that i converges
but thats only a shot in the dark
i dont have a clue about it