Thread: How to prove this, ordered fields

If x != 0, then 1/(1/x) = x.

I know by m5 you can rewrite as:

= x.

Im not quite sure how to proceed here however, I thought using m2 would help for this, but im not sure how I should show that =

Originally Posted by p00ndawg

If x != 0, then 1/(1/x) = x.
I know by m5 you can rewrite as: = x.
=

You have us at a disadvantage. We don’t have your set of axioms.

But this may help. .

You can apply the correct axioms to that.