Hello all,
Can someone please help me with the following proof? i have an exam on monday and cant figure out this one question i found online:
Use order axioms to show that 0 < a < b & 0 < c < d implies that a/d < b/c. Thanks in advance.
I hope I remember: , and since the last inequality is exactly the opposite that we have by the given data ( and everybody's positive here, the correct inequality should be