Show that is differentiable only at z = 0. Hence it is no where analytical.?
Last edited by mr fantastic; October 19th 2009 at 11:25 PM. Reason: I assume what I added in latex is what was meant.
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Originally Posted by SNESAM Show that is differentiable only at z = 0. Hence it is no where analytical.? Now as This gives Using the cauchy Riemann equaitons only equals at the point x=0 A similar argument shows the same for y so the function is diff at (0,0).
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