I made a mistake, I've edited my post. However I still don't reach the Taylor series you provided. I don't see why the series I found is not a Taylor series.
I've used the fact that
=\sum _{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{f^{(n)}(z-z_0)}{n!})
.
I've found out that
}=\frac{(-1)^n (n+1)!}{z^{(n+2)}})
.
Now you make me doubt the formula holds for the function

due to the singularity at

.
Edit : I understand the equality you gave, but I don't know how to reach it. I mean I don't know how to reach that the Taylor Series is
Edit 2 : Sorry, I just found my error. I forgot to evaluate
})
in

...
I think I'll do it. Thanks a lot!