Show that the function f defined by f(x)=0 if x is irrational and f(x)=1 if x is rational does not have a limit at any point.

Any suggestions?

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- September 26th 2009, 12:51 PMpaperclipFunction prove
Show that the function f defined by f(x)=0 if x is irrational and f(x)=1 if x is rational does not have a limit at any point.

Any suggestions? - September 26th 2009, 01:35 PMbkarpuz
- September 26th 2009, 02:03 PMDefunkt