I'd say that makes sense.
That's a pretty cool way of thinking about it!
Or is it just wishful thinking?
F=ma
a=F/m
dv/dt=F/m
dv= F/m dt
Acceleration is the first derivative of velocity. Integrate
delta V= F/m*t
That seems to make sense. Did I do this right or just get lucky?
Fermion
Assuming that F is a constant, yes it is. If F is a function of t, you would need to integrate rather than just multiplying by t. If F is a function of v, as some friction forces are, you would need to move it to the left side of the equation before integrating.