I agree that it's because the DE doesn't have any problematic points around $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \left( \frac{\pi}{2}, 1 \right) \end{align*}$ that the DE should have solution there.
Hey guys,
Could someone please help me out on this question?
I'm not really sure what it means by general theory. Is it because cos(pi/2) = 1, then a solution to dy/dx exists because dy/dx =1/(2*(pi/2)*(1+2))?
I wouldn't mind some help with solving the ODE either.
Thanks in advance,
GirandoniAirRifle