The form of Riccati is the book says that is a Riccati equation. So how does the constant 1 qualify as a R(x) term?
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Originally Posted by catenary The form of Riccati is the book says that is a Riccati equation. So how does the constant 1 qualify as a R(x) term? 1 is a perfectly legitimate function of x. $R(x)=1$
is it a legitimate function of x because you can write it as ?
Originally Posted by catenary is it a legitimate function of x because you can write it as ? sure if you like but even if you couldn't it's still a function of x. It just happens to be a constant function. Does it map every value in it's domain to a unique number? Yes. It maps every value in it's domain to 1. That's all you need to be a function.
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