$\displaystyle Find the Fourier transform of \frac{1}{p}e^{\frac{-\pi x^2}{p^2}}$ for any $p > 0$. I know that the Fourier transform of $e^{-\pi x^2}$ is $e^{-\pi u^2}$. I was told to use the scaling property also. After attempting the problem I came up with $\frac{1}{p}e^{\frac{-\pi u^2}{p}$. I am not sure if this is right though. $