$\displaystyle (\exp^{\frac{y}{x}}-\frac{y}{x}\exp^{\frac{y}{x}}+\frac{1}{1+x^2})dx+\ exp^{\frac{y}{x}}dy=0 $

have reduce $\displaystyle (1-\frac{y}{x}+\frac{\exp^{\frac{y}{x}}}{1+x^2})dx+dy =0 $

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{y}{x}-\frac{\exp^{\frac{y}{x}}}{1+x^2}-1 $

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx}-\frac{y}{x}=-\frac{\exp^{\frac{y}{x}}}{1+x^2}-1 $

pls am stock here, whether am on the right part or not, help!

thanks