Hi, I am stuck on this question. Prove for any function . So I know I should use the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality applied to the functions f′ and 1, but I am stuck on how to do it. Thanks for any help people.
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Thanks for that, but how do I go on to prove my inequality? I don't see how squaring brings the L in.
Originally Posted by iceman954 Thanks for that, but how do I go on to prove my inequality? I don't see how squaring brings the L in. What is
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