Have you seen the following:
If on with ,
if we define
Have you seen this proven?
with and . In other words, let and . Let . It can be shown that .
Prove that for , and for , , that
I'm really stuck on this one. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!
(By the way, this is from Fritz John, Partial Differential Equations, exercise 2.4.7b., p46.)
EDIT: Thanks for the help! It is now solved, with the following proof:
Originally Posted by me
Ya, the proof is the same for both problems. Do you have (or can you get a copy of) Colton's book on PDEs (it a Dover book). In mine, it's on page 79.
If not, I'll give you the details of this proof and let you provide details of the proof of your problem - Deal!
Thanks.... the library had the book Partial Differential Equations: An Introduction by David Colton (1988). Is that the correct text? But unfortunately the library's copy is not the Dover re-print. I looked at p79 but the theorem you cite is not there. Nor can I find it around that chapter.
Would it be possible to tell me where it is by chapter/section instead of by page ? Thanks !