Hi The Problem : I know how to solve the problem, but my question is why . ? What is the reason ? Is there a theoretically answer? knowing that it has been solved using Reduction of Order Method.
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Because the homogeneous solution is where x = 0...
Last edited by Prove It; May 26th 2011 at 08:41 AM.
Originally Posted by Prove It Because the homogeneous solution is where x =/= 0... The problem also becomes first-order if x = 0.
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