Hi guys, my professor recently gave us this problem:
with all zero initial conditions to solve using Laplace transforms. So I assume that even though it's an infinite sum, in this case you can take the Laplace transform of the summand and sum that to get...
.
However I'm pretty sure that isn't invertible, or if it is I can't see a way to invert it cleanly. Did I mess up somewhere? Thanks.


LinkBack URL
About LinkBacks


