I hope this is the right forum for this. The book says that the limit of $\displaystyle (x)\frac{4x}{(x-4)^2{x}}$ as $\displaystyle x\rightarrow 0$ is $\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}$ I've stared at it and just can't see how I avoid having an x term in the numerator, and thus the limit being zero. The problem is, this book has been shown to be wrong at least once before, so now I'm never sure. If the limit is $\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}$ can someone show me why?