If g is an arbitrary differentiable function of one variable, then is a solution of Attempt: How am I suppose to show this: Thanks.
Last edited by dwsmith; December 25th 2010 at 05:12 PM. Reason: Adjusted derivative
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Let There is a mistake. The chain rule Also
Originally Posted by zzzoak Let There is a mistake. The chain rule Since g is function of one variable, how can we be sure that the derivative will produce from
For example consider the function and find
I believe you. I was just asking. I edited the original post. How can I show g_y=g_x because that is the only way it will be 0?
Please look post #2. Instead of there must be