Hi all,

Gotta BVP here that I'd like to run by someone to see if my thinking is correct.

Show that the following boundary value problem:

does not in general have a solution.

I used the LDE solution to be

.

So, solving for both boundary conditions:

Therefore

.

Therefore

This, to me, shows that there is no solution of this form to the BVP. Is this sufficient to answer the question?

The next part asks to find a condition of

for there to be a solution. If choose the boundary conditions of

, and making the right boundary condition to be

, I'll get a solution of the form

.

Am I close? Or have I got the wrong idea here.

Thanks for your time!