1. ## Laplace transform question

So the definition of the laplace transform of eat= where the laplace transform of 1=. The paper that I am reading says that the laplace transform of e-(-a)xe-x is equal to . I have no clue how they came up with this, could anyone show me how the book came up with this answer?

2. Your function is hard to read at best. You need to be more clear.

The Laplace transform $\displaystyle F(s)$ of a function $\displaystyle f(t)$ can be found as follows

$\displaystyle F(s) = \int_0^{\infty}e^{-st}f(t)~dt$

Please repost the function in an audible fashion if you need more assistance.

3. Originally Posted by aabsdr
So the definition of the laplace transform of eat= where the laplace transform of 1=. The paper that I am reading says that the laplace transform of e-(-a)xe-x is equal to . I have no clue how they came up with this, could anyone show me how the book came up with this answer?
e-(-a)xe-x is uninitelligible. Use ^ to denote powers and use brackets for clarity. eg. e^(at) means $\displaystyle \e^{at}$.

Better yet, learn to use latex.