Hello everyone, If an autonomous ODE is given by dy/dx = f(y) and a separable ODE is given by dy/dx = f(x)f(y) then all autonomous ODEs are separable? Is this right? Thanks
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... it is self evident that the case $\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx}= f(y)$ is a particular case of $\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx}= g(x)\cdot f(y)$ with $\displaystyle g(x)=1$ ... Kind regards $\displaystyle \chi$ $\displaystyle \sigma$
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