find the second solution that is linearly independent to the solution given for

(1-x cot x)y'' - xy' +y = 0

y1(x) = x

0<x<pi

hint : integration of (x/(1-x cot x)) dx = ln |x cos x - sin x|

i've tried to rearrage the equation in the form :

but how can i get y2(x) = function of x????

i get stack here... pls help me.....