I'm having trouble on this problem
Let f(x)= 1/4 x^2 +x-1. This is a 1-1 function and hence its inverse is a 1-1 function. Find the following a. f'(2) b. f'(3)
I got this so far
3/4 x^2 +1 then 3/4 (2)^2 +1 = 3+1 = 4 My first question is am I right by getting the derivative and sub the 2 in? my second question is if I am right then what do i do afterward?
The way you've writtenthis question confuses me a litle bit. The derivative of a function is not dependent on whether or not it has an inverse.
But if you want , then
A function is said to have an inverse function , if for every element in the range of , there exists one, and only one corresponding element in the domain of
Is the definition satisfied in your case?
No, it's not 1-1 and does not have an inverse. Or are you restricting f to a given interval?
[/quote]I got this so far
3/4 x^2 +1[/quote]
What is equal to this? Certainly Not the derivative! f'(x)= (1/2)x+ 1.
then 3/4 (2)^2 +1 = 3+1 = 4 My first question is am I right by getting the derivative and sub the 2 in? my second question is if I am right then what do i do afterward?