The question stated y=1, which means it is capped off to y=1
The integral is setup as
Where f(x) is the graph "above" of g(x).
1 is above the graph from the domain , therefore is written first.
The answers don't make sense with what I have learned.
for A) about the x-axis shouldn't it be (Left - Right)
Shouldn't it have been: PI (antiderivative) of [(0)^2 - (x^3)^2] dx
Why did they put (1)^2 instead of 0 when 0 is on the left.
I understand part B, but A doesn't make sense to me.