Hi, I was wondering if for a product $\displaystyle \prod_{i=1}^{n-1}f(n,i)=g(n)$ you can take the limit as n goes to 1 in the product, where $\displaystyle g(1)\neq 1$.

In other words, can you explicitly take the limit $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to 1}\prod_{i=1}^{n-1}f(n,i)$? Assuming the relationship with $\displaystyle g(n)$ holds for all n>0, the limit can't just be the empty product, hence my dilemma.

Thanks!