some answers, here:
http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...ease-help.html
some answers, here:
http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...ease-help.html
If, the two functions are infinitely differenciable on some open interval, then
=
I hope you recognize the pattern.
It follows binomial coefficients.
(You can support this with induction).
Thus,
Thus, you can think of,
And apply the theorem (twice because you still need to do the other product).
Thus,
Apply theorem again,