i've been thinking about this problem for almost two days, and i havent made much headway 1.) does the following series converge? [epsilon]infiniti,n=1 (sin(1/n))/n
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
From geometry it is well known that for ... (1) Now from (1) we derive that... The series... ... converges so that also converges the series... Kind regards
View Tag Cloud