How would I change this problem into a series and evaluate the limit?
(e^x) - 1
any help greatly appreciated as I'm completely stuck.
The MacLaurin series for [tex]e^x is 1+ x+x^2/2+ x^3/3!+ ...
What do you get when you subtract 1 from that.
The MacLaurin series for sin(x) is x- x^3/3!+ x^5/5!+ .... If you divide the previous series by that, do you see that you can cancel an "x"? Then, as x goes to 0, all but the constant terms will disappear.
I wind up with:
-3x^-1 + 20x ^-2 - 210x^ -3 etc....
So 2 things:
1) is my division right? there is clearly a pattern just not sure if its the right one.
2) If it is right do I just need to take the derivative of each and calculate the limit from there or is there more i'm missing?
edit: as x goes to 0 how would all the x's dissapear. Wouldnt I just get a bunch of 0 over 0's?
2nd, and this is the same question I asked the other guy..
why do all the x terms vanish. As x approaches 0 wouldnt we be stuck with a bunch of 0 over 0's?
I know the limit is 1 because I already did it with l' hospital but I just dont understand how the x's vanish and why the series does not wind up in an inderteminate form.