Lack of a response tells me no. Can anyone give me advice on approximating n?
For example, . If you can find a value of N such that whenever n>N, it will follow that the original inequality will hold whenever n>N. (Here, K stands for some given large number, such as 1000001.)
But , so take N to be any integer greater than and your inequality will hold for all n>N.
Just to emphasise, is not the smallest number with that property. If you want to find that number, you can use a computer to check all the values of N from 1 to , and it will tell you which is the first one to make the inequality true.