Why is the Integral equal to Why don't you have to take the the antiderivative of tan(t). Like you would if it was Also why is the lower limit not used when solving the problem?
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Hello swatpup32 Originally Posted by swatpup32 Why is the Integral equal to Why don't you have to take the the antiderivative of tan(t). Like you would if it was Also why is the lower limit not used when solving the problem? It doesn't matter what the function of is, the explanation goes like this: OK? Grandad
Originally Posted by swatpup32 Why is the Integral equal to Why don't you have to take the the antiderivative of tan(t). Like you would if it was Also why is the lower limit not used when solving the problem? You use the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus: and F'(x)=f(x) so you have For the question with the lower limit, you have the formula, from Leibinz-Newton formula: Hope you are familiar with Lagrange's notation.
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