# Math Help - another limit question

1. ## another limit question

If I take the limit at infinity of $\frac{a}{a \pm C}$

a=any $a_n$ and C is any constant

Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity?

2. Originally Posted by manyarrows
If I take the limit at infinity of $\frac{a}{a \pm C}$

a=any $a_n$ and C is any constant

Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity?
$\frac{a}{a \pm C} = \frac{1}{1 \pm \frac{C}{a}} \longrightarrow \frac{1}{1 \pm 0} = 1$