If I take the limit at infinity of $\displaystyle \frac{a}{a \pm C}$ a=any $\displaystyle a_n$ and C is any constant Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity?
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Originally Posted by manyarrows If I take the limit at infinity of $\displaystyle \frac{a}{a \pm C}$ a=any $\displaystyle a_n$ and C is any constant Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity? $\displaystyle \frac{a}{a \pm C} = \frac{1}{1 \pm \frac{C}{a}} \longrightarrow \frac{1}{1 \pm 0} = 1$
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