# another limit question

• April 14th 2009, 08:09 PM
manyarrows
another limit question
If I take the limit at infinity of $\frac{a}{a \pm C}$

a=any $a_n$ and C is any constant

Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity?
• April 20th 2009, 05:15 AM
mr fantastic
Quote:

Originally Posted by manyarrows
If I take the limit at infinity of $\frac{a}{a \pm C}$

a=any $a_n$ and C is any constant

Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity?

$\frac{a}{a \pm C} = \frac{1}{1 \pm \frac{C}{a}} \longrightarrow \frac{1}{1 \pm 0} = 1$