If I take the limit at infinity of $\displaystyle \frac{a}{a \pm C}$

a=any $\displaystyle a_n$ and C is any constant

Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity?

Printable View

- Apr 14th 2009, 08:09 PMmanyarrowsanother limit question
If I take the limit at infinity of $\displaystyle \frac{a}{a \pm C}$

a=any $\displaystyle a_n$ and C is any constant

Will the limit always be 1 because C becomes irrelevant at infinity? - Apr 20th 2009, 05:15 AMmr fantastic